Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 17.06.2025 02:06
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Why are the Chinese so sensitive to Western criticism?
There's no rule.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
What is the story of how you met your spouse?
You'll usually find your answer there.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Why is going on a date today so much different than it was when I was young?
What's (not “whats”) the rule?